World War II double standard

By Michael Hoffman

From a review of the book After the Reich: The Brutal History of the Allied Occupation (2009) by Giles MacDonogh:

"This absorbing study of the Allied occupation of Germany and Austria from 1945 to 1949 shows that the end of WWII by no means ended the suffering. A vengeful Red Army visited on German women an ordeal of mass rape, while looting the Soviet occupation zone of almost everything of value, from watches to factories. Millions of ethnic Germans were driven from Poland and Czechoslovakia, stripped of their possessions and subjected to atrocities on the way...Nor were the Germans, with their own death camps finally coming to the world's appalled attention, in a good position to complain...”

 --Publisher's Weekly

If the foregoing reasoning is valid, why were Judaics and Zionists "in a good position to complain" about the so-called "Holocaust," since it occurred in the wake of the Judeo-Bolshevik instigated deaths of millions of Christian gentiles in the Soviet Union?

 Fortunately Publisher's Weekly is wrong. The civilians of a population captive to Nazi or Soviet dictatorship are not collectivly responsible or guilty of any crime and their murders cannot be justified by any civilized criteria.

Nonetheless, the mass murder of German civilians during and immediately after World War II is often justified by the claim that these women, children and elderly men were collectively guilty and deserved to be killed, yet few would dare to apply this same standard to millions of Judaic persons in Eastern Europe and Russia who were ruled by or allied with the Judaic Bolsheviks who slaughtered gentiles, which led to a desire for reprisal on the part of the Germans. The Judaic complaining about this German reprisal has never ceased, and the complaintants appear to be in a very "good position" indeed. Why the double standard?

For further reading:

Princeton University Prof. Arno Mayer, Why Did the Heavens Not Darken? (Pantheon, 1988)

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